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Post by tchell on Nov 8, 2010 16:23:47 GMT -5
It seems strange to me that in British North America the governor held absolute power over all the colonists while the British king was steadily getting his power taken away by Westminster. Why would the king allow somebody to have more power than him in a colony? Wouldn't he be supremely jealous of the governor and try to divide the power between more people? Another thing, wouldn't the British government be concerned of a person who could rule their land as if it was his own and create any laws that suit him?
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Post by Mr. Delainey on Nov 9, 2010 12:35:24 GMT -5
The purpose behind granting the governor such exceptional powers was precisely to prevent another revolution in Canada (like what happened in the USA). The Americans had too much power and freedom. The English reasoned if this were taken away AND if power was centralized upon a single, reliable person (governor) who administrated through appointed councils, then the odds of there being a revolution would be reduced.
The odds of revolution being reduced would be a function of the fact that fewer people would be involved directly in politics. They'd likely worry more about their day to day affairs rather than show an interest in the affairs of government. Consequently, they wouldn't be so much worried about participating in government so much as seeing that society was stable.
I disagree with myself here, in that, I think in your day to day affairs you'd come to appreciate the fact that your tax dollars go towards paying for lavish parties thrown by the Family Compact. In my reckoning, I'd like to see that money build roads, bridges, schools, etc. So even in a simple day to day existence government matters and I'd complain about it. And if I'd complain about corruption I might become interested in politics; and if I become interested in politics I might very well enter politics or demand a proportion of decision-making power.
The British plan here was a complete failure as the rebellions of 1837 and 38 imply.
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