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Post by justinetoews on Nov 8, 2010 11:14:13 GMT -5
It says that while Lord Durham was in British North America, he "spent the majority of his time in Lower Canada. Unfortunately for the French, Durham did not consult with the French about their specific concerns. Instead, he spent most of his time with English merchants of Montreal; and in so doing he inherited their anti-French bias and their ridiculous belief that English was superior to French-Canadien culture." Would it not have helped if he were to have spent an equal amount of time with the French to understand their view as well? Why would they not have enforced this? And why do they call him Lord Durham, how does that have any relation to his actual name John George Lambton?
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Post by Mr. Delainey on Nov 9, 2010 12:37:29 GMT -5
They call him Lord Durham because he's the "Lord of Durham". This means he owned an estate (land) that carried with it some sort of noble title.
And yeah I think Durham would have benefitted from actually speaking to the French about why they rebelled.
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